CONTENTS

Exercise: Stopped Martingales — Checking the One-Step Drift

Problem

Let (Mn)n0(M_n)_{n \ge 0} be a martingale with respect to (Fn)(\mathcal{F}_n), and let τ\tau be a stopping time. Define the stopped process Mnτ:=MnτM_n^\tau := M_{n \wedge \tau}.

  1. Write the increment Mn+1τMnτM_{n+1}^\tau - M_n^\tau in terms of Mn+1MnM_{n+1} - M_n and an indicator. Verify that the indicator is Fn\mathcal{F}_n-measurable.

  2. Prove directly that (Mnτ)(M_n^\tau) is a martingale: compute E[Mn+1τMnτFn]\mathbb{E}[M_{n+1}^\tau - M_n^\tau \mid \mathcal{F}_n] and show it is zero.

  3. Concrete computation. Let SnS_n be a symmetric random walk starting at 00 and let τ=inf{n:Sn=10}\tau = \inf\{n : |S_n| = 10\}. Verify that the stopped process (Snτ)(S_{n \wedge \tau}) has the martingale property at times n=1,2,5,100n = 1, 2, 5, 100 by taking expectations of both sides.
  4. Where this fails: unbounded stopping times. Still with SnS_n symmetric random walk at 0 and τ=inf{n:Sn=1}\tau = \inf\{n : S_n = 1\}, we know τ<\tau < \infty a.s. but E[τ]=\mathbb{E}[\tau] = \infty. Compute E[Sτ]\mathbb{E}[S_\tau] and E[S0]\mathbb{E}[S_0], and observe they differ. Explain why "the stopped process is a martingale" does not contradict this — that is, why E[Mnτ]=0\mathbb{E}[M_n^\tau] = 0 for all nn is consistent with E[Mτ]0\mathbb{E}[M_\tau] \ne 0.

Hint

For part 1: the key fact is 1n<τ=1τ>n\mathbf{1}_{n < \tau} = \mathbf{1}_{\tau > n}, and {τ>n}\{\tau > n\} is the complement of {τn}Fn\{\tau \le n\} \in \mathcal{F}_n.

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